Wisconsin Law Enforcement Standards Board (LESB) Phase 2 Practice Exam

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• Which principle must you always maintain during interactions to establish and preserve control?
• A silver alert must be issued within how many hours of disappearance?
• Hazardous materials that emit ionizing radiation capable of destroying cells are described as what?
• When turning at an intersection, how far ahead should you activate your turn signal?
• National data on police contacts show that _____ % of contacts involve no force at all and are handled solely through presence and/or dialogue.
• Which item is NOT listed as part of the vehicle checks at the beginning of your shift?
• Which option describes an action that would meet a burglary element of entering without consent with intent to steal?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a tactic used by abusers?
• What is advised regarding demeaning a person who is behaving strangely?
• This decentralization is especially useful if you are in the escort position, and the subject's resistance indicates the need for decentralization:
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a technique to manage stress response during high-pressure situations?
• Which of the following is NOT an environmental indicator?
• Which statement is NOT listed as an example of great bodily harm?
• Which statement correctly describes asking for consent to search a vehicle?
• What technique is also called metering when engaging threats from cover?
• Which of the following lists correctly identifies the seven parts of the incident response?
• The minimum age for issuing a silver alert is what?
• Which term describes a hazard that involves heat or temperature-related danger?
• The option that best describes the use of force when risk is high is?
• The steering wheel hand position 9 o'clock/3 o'clock allows rapid rotation of how many degrees?
• What degree should a strong angle knee strike be?
• In the QPR framework for suicidality, which action is the first step?
• Making a domestic abuse arrest should only occur after.....
• Which step in mediation ground rules explicitly involves the mediator introducing themselves at the start?
• What are the three basic groups of biological threats?
• Which principle advises leaving cover only to gain a tactical advantage by moving to better cover?
• Which of the following statements best reflects silver alert dissemination requirements?
• In the context of officer safety, what is the primary purpose of cover?
• Going over the mediation process in a basic way involves four steps. Which of the following is NOT one of those steps?
• Which of the following is an element of mayhem?
• An automobile inventory is conducted to protect the officer from claims of theft, to protect the automobile owner's property, and to protect which of the following?
• What is the target area for a strong forearm strike?
• Which professional may conduct a body cavity search?
• Which type of evidence is often the only evidence available to distinguish between consent/non-consent and levels of incapacitation?
• Which action is not recommended when interacting with someone experiencing delusions?
• Which statement describes deadly force in the context of firearms or other instruments?
• Which of the following is the other skill identified for identifying medically significant behaviors in a timely way?
• When a vehicle changes direction or speed, what occurs?
• What is the common societal reaction to a domestic violence victim who leaves?
• Which item is explicitly listed as permissible dog-related searches in public places?
• What is the target area for a reaction front kick?
• Subject behavior that justifies an officer's use of deadly force is:
• After execution, a search warrant must be returned within how many hours, excluding holidays and weekends?
• What is the purpose for use of force (UOF)?
• Which of the following is a listed crisis behavior?
• In hot pursuit, under what condition may officers enter a residence without a warrant?
• Hazardous materials that pose a chemical threat burn on contact or absorb into the body and through time destroy organs. This threat is called what?
• Which option corresponds to the seventh step of the crisis cycle?
• This decentralization is used to overcome resistance from the come-along position. It is also effective if a subject has attempted to defeat your application of a compliance hold by making a fist:
• Which of the following is a category of intimate relationships that includes current or former spouses, partners, and significant others?
• One purpose of using lights to illuminate the subject vehicle during a high-risk stop is to make it easier to see subject vehicle and occupants.
• What position do you start a frisk from?
• If the stopping distance at 30 mph is D, the stopping distance at 60 mph is how many times D?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a decision-making factor when conducting a pursuit?
• To stay in a position of advantage during a pursuit, you should position your vehicle slightly to the ______ of the suspect vehicle.
• To overcome continued resistance, assaultive behavior, or their threats, which term applies?
• Open view is considered a permissible search under the 4th Amendment.
• Which option best describes a protective action that boxes in a suspect?
• Which decentralization is NOT in the list?
• Which option describes Stabilization (return to normalcy) in the crisis cycle?
• Which statement about the target areas is accurate?
• Which step is the fifth step of the crisis cycle?
• Plain view seizure requires that the officer be in what kind of location?
• Which statement correctly pairs a strike with its target area?
• In the intervention options, what does Presence primarily rely on?
• For highway hazmat shipments, which document is typically kept in the cab to describe the material?
• Which of the following is NOT a protective alternative in EVOC?
• Which of the following is a decision-making factor when conducting a pursuit?
• A silver alert may be issued if the missing person is believed to have which condition?
• Which statement best defines stalking in the given context?
• What does PIT stand for in pursuit tactics?
• What is the first action recommended when you experience rapid air loss in your squad tires?
• Hazardous materials that pose this kind of threat are living organisms, which can spread disease leading to illness and death.
• Approximately what percent of officers killed on duty in 2012 were responding to domestic calls?
• The theft becomes a felony when the value of the stolen property exceeds what amount?
• What does society think of a DV victim who fights back?
• Use of force must fit into one of these categories.
• Arrest in domestic abuse incidents is mandatory if there is probable cause that a person has violated one of the following?
• Which statement best describes burglary?
• In decision making, which two fundamental questions must you answer?
• In regards to the trauma response, officers should focus on the ______ rather than the cold hard facts.
• Plutonium is an example of which category of hazardous material?
• Allows you to shoot w/o target isolation if the consequences of not stopping the threat would be worse than the possibility of hitting an innocent person
• Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the predominant aggressor?
• What is the minimum number of officers recommended to conduct a high-risk contact properly (contact, cover, and arrest control)?
• In stalking definitions, course of conduct means a series of how many acts?
• Which of the following is a recommended tactic to reduce risk at a DV scene?
• If you have made a Terry stop you can frisk what?
• Which step should be communicated to the victim when an arrest is about to be made?
• The term cone of darkness refers to the lighting effect produced when headlights of the contact and cover squads are positioned at a slight angle to each other.
• What type of contact would you use for a vehicle w/ multiple occupants or a vehicle stopped as an investigative 'terry' stop?
• For a subject's threat to be considered imminent, it must meet three criteria: which of the following?
• Which option is NOT part of the nine steps to a successful death notification?
• Which category includes those who currently reside or formerly resided together, such as roommates and household members?
• Which of the following is NOT an element of CDTP?
• What is the target area for a strong angle kick?
• Which statement best describes Protective Alternatives in intervention options?
• How many acts are needed to show continuity of purpose in stalking?
• Which factor is a decision-making factor that weighs the likelihood of apprehending without pursuing?
• PTSD is an anxiety disorder that develops in response to a real-life event. Which option best matches?
• Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the predominant aggressor?
• If a person is hearing voices, what should you ask?
• Which statement best describes the Wisconsin DAAT system?
• What are the three components of the disturbance resolution model?
• Which three factors must exist for someone to be abusive?
• What term describes any material or substance capable of causing harm to people, property or the environment?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a behavior indicating a crisis?
• This decentralization is especially useful if you are positioned at level 3, behind a subject:
• A person who is unconscious or cannot make rational decisions as a result of the use of alcohol is best described as which of the following?
• Hazardous materials that pose a suffocation threat prevent the body from receiving the oxygen it needs to survive. This is called what?
• What percent of all stalking cases involve a domestic relationship?
• The most common type of hallucination for people with mental illness is hearing voices. True or false?
• Which term describes force decisions that are a trained technique applied in a dynamic way?
• After you have gained control of a subject, what must you do regarding the level of force?
• Which of the following is NOT a driver input for good driving techniques?
• What is the purpose of active countermeasures (strikes)?
• In the disturbance resolution model, what is the purpose of Follow Through Considerations?
• Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting a route to a call?
• Which of the following is NOT a target requirement for use of deadly force?
• Which terrorist tactic is frequently used as a weapon due to low cost, ease of production, adaptability, and difficulty to detect or trace after the event?
• In the pursuit liability standard established by County of Sacramento v. Lewis, which description best defines when police liability can occur?
• DAAT techniques are _________ skills.
• For a silver alert, there must be reasonable belief that the disappearance is due to what?
• Which of the following is NOT a step in the forensic experimental trauma interview?
• This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals are eaten or swallowed.
• In EVOC, which item is NOT considered part of 'Dialog'?
• Due regard is defined as?
• Which of the following is the initial step in the forensic experimental trauma interview?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a serious and persistent mental illness?
• The ______ _______ is the most significant and not necessarily the first aggressor in a domestic abuse incident.
• Which of the following is considered an intimate part?
• Which factor relates to the physical state of the road surface when selecting a route to a call?
• Which practice helps ensure fair mediation? (about documenting outcomes)
• Ground rules for mediation must be set by going over the following 6 points. Which option is NOT one of them?
• What is the single most important choice you can make to ensure safety around your squad during patrol?
• To overcome passive resistance or their threats, which term applies?
• Which emotion is listed as a reason a victim may remain in an abusive relationship?
• Which of the following is an example of substantial bodily harm?
• Which option correctly identifies the target area for a reaction knee strike?
• What is the purpose of control devices (OC/ECD)?
• A crisis situation is always a matter of ______.
• An automobile inventory indicates that items in the car are inventoried to protect the officer from claims of theft, to protect the automobile owner's property, and to protect what aspect of the impound area?
• The DAAT system is backed by two important concepts that guide Wisconsin LE.
• Which statement best defines false imprisonment?
• For hazardous materials shipped via highway, which item is required to be kept in the cab?
• When responding to a person with schizophrenia, which approach is advised?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six steps to a high-risk contact?
• Retail theft becomes a felony when the value exceeds what amount?
• The outside of the power and control wheel contains the cement of the abusive relationship: the threat of or actual use of which violence types?
• Which option is NOT one of the four types of pursuit policies?
• Which statement best distinguishes false imprisonment from kidnapping?
• What is the primary purpose of the hand position described for driving?
• The most common form of chemical exposure and can immobilize a subject quickly. This exposure occurs in atmospheres contaminated with a hazardous chemicals vapor or dust.
• A missing person must be entered into which database for silver alerts?
• Which Supreme Court case held that deadly force may not be used to seize an unarmed, non-dangerous suspect when there is no immediate threat?
• After occupants are ordered out one at a time, what is the next action described in the six steps?
• What is at the heart of the power and control wheel?
• When taking subjects into custody on a high-risk stop, what is the best position to have them assume before putting them in handcuffs?
• Tactical Deployment involves several elements. Which of the following is included?
• In crisis intervention, what verbal tactic is noted as effective to gain the person's attention?
• Which of the following is identified as one of the two skills necessary to identify medically significant behaviors in a timely way?
• Which Smith System step focuses on developing a comprehensive view of the traffic environment?
• The removal of an assistive device from a physically disabled arrestee requires the aid of a person who has had training in handling physically disabled persons.
• Hazardous materials that pose this kind of threat can cause injury or death to a first responder by the shock waves of an explosion or flying debris (shrapnel) from the failing container in which the product is contained.
• Which terrorist tactic utilizes organisms or toxins and includes bacteria, viruses, and toxins as its basic groups?
• Which of the following is NOT a function assigned on a high-risk stop?
• In the classification of bodily harm, which item best describes bodily harm?
• The Smith System is a five-step system designed to keep the driver constantly aware of traffic. Which of the following is one of the five steps?
• RDD stands for what in the context of radiological threats?
• The delivery system in imminent threats refers to:
• Which factor can convert harassment from a misdemeanor to a felony?
• Among the listed uses of force, which is listed?
• Which statement is NOT a listed crisis behavior?
• Which principle advises to search from behind the subject, not the front?
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of antisocial personality disorder?
• What is the name of the technique whose goal is to lock the flashlight and the weapon together so they can operate as a unit?
• Which statement is NOT a restriction on plain view seizure?
• Which of the following is a behavioral indicator for people in crisis?
• How many mitigating circumstances are listed?
• When initially applying force, what standard governs the level and degree of force?
• Which agency is strongly recommended to respond to any strangulation scene, even if there are no visible injuries?
• A person whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol is described as what?
• Which is NOT one of the three options available for DV victims?
• Which of the following is NOT a safety consideration when responding to DV incidents?
• Silent emergencies are described in Wisconsin State Statute?
• What term describes an active attempt by an officer to apprehend occupants of a moving vehicle in an authorized LE vehicle?
• What is the essential feature of Borderline Personality Disorder?
• What is the recommended hand position when backing?
• Which statement best describes the scope of a protective sweep?
• In the levels of awareness, which level is described as ready to act?
• Which item is listed as a barrier to leaving related to health concerns?
• Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the predominant aggressor?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a technique to utilize during the stress response?
• Which factor can elevate harassment to a felony in some circumstances?
• Which of the following is included as a step in a forensic experimental trauma interview?
• Which of the following is one of the four basic principles to effective police patrolling?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps of the Smith System?
• Which option is NOT a recommended step in pre-intervention preparation?
• Which option best defines short-term EDPs?
• Which role is responsible for traffic control during a high-risk stop?
• Which option is NOT one of the six ways a hazardous material can be harmful to a first responder?
• No person other than which professional may conduct a body cavity search?
• Which exposure occurs when hazardous chemical vapors or dust are present in the air and can immobilize a person quickly?
• Auditory or visual stimuli that have no basis in reality are called what?
• Which option among the intervention modes includes opportunities to de-escalate or control without violence?
• What is the purpose of intermediate weapons (baton)?
• What is the other technique, besides 'Slicing the pie', used for engaging threats from cover?
• Can a person die from alcohol withdrawals?
• Which item is a valid fighting rule?
• Which principle underlies proper use of cover by exposing only your weapon and your master eye?
• Which is a safety measure when approaching a DV scene?
• During custodial arrest of a driver, you may perform a SIA of the vehicle if one of two factors is present. Which option best captures the correct condition?
• Which practice should be avoided when engaging with DV victims during escalation?
• What percent of acute hazardous material events occur in fixed locations where chemicals are used and stored?
• What determines the level of force officers must use to establish control?
• Which statement about EDP categories is true?
• In Estate of Cavanaugh v. Andrade, what missing policy factor led to city liability in a pursuit incident?
• A decision on which party to arrest should not be based solely on:
• Which step comes after De-escalation in the crisis cycle?
• During methamphetamine production, the most significant health risk is acute injury from chemical exposure via which routes?
• What term describes anything that will stop an incoming round?
• Which of the following is an early warning sign?
• Which of the following is NOT a route of entry into the body for hazardous materials?
• Which of the following is NOT a permissible search without a warrant?
• Verbal indicators are best described as which of the following?
• Which step describes how to position the vehicle for the most efficient turn when approaching a curve?
• Control alternatives are divided into four groups. Which is one of those groups?
• A strip search is defined as a search in which which areas are uncovered and exposed or touched?
• Which principle states to search as many times as necessary?
• Which term best describes verbally persuading a subject through conversation?
• Which is the first principle listed among the five basic principles of a search?
• During crisis debriefing, which action focuses on physical well-being?
• Which combination best describes the four basic patrolling principles?
• Which action is a debriefing step that addresses the subject's immediate emotional state?
• A search warrant must be executed and served by midnight of which day, counting holidays and weekends, following its issuance?
• Which is listed as an exception to the knock and announce requirement?
• If the level of force you are using is not effective to gain control, what may you do?
• Wisconsin's system of Defensive and Arrest Tactics is defined as....
• In tactical evaluation, which category includes evaluating potential threats and opportunities?
• Which of the following best represents the three options available for DV victims?
• Do not make a decision to arrest at a DV solely based on _______
• In a high-risk contact, if the contact and cover squads are positioned correctly (at a slight angle to each other) the headlights form a......
• Which contact or team is appropriate to reach in a mental health crisis?
• Which category includes those who provide services to a dependent person, such as attendants or caregivers for an elderly or disabled person?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated condition warranting termination of a pursuit?
• Which disorder is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others?
• Which sequence best describes the recommended steps when intervening with a subject in an apparent crisis?
• Which category includes people who abuse alcohol or other drugs or both?
• What does society think of a DV victim who silently stays?
• A true emergency is defined as?
• How far should the steering wheel be kept away from you to allow airbags to deploy safely and properly?
• During a Terry stop, what is the purpose of frisking the passenger compartment?
• In your initial approach to a disturbance, you need to do three things:
• To present a verbal display of authority, which concept is used?
• Your goal is to always get subjects to ______ __________.
• Which term describes dangerous materials that pose a risk due to extreme temperatures?
• Which factor is described as society's narrowly focused response to elderly victims?
• Hazardous materials that pose a threat to first responders because they are too hot or too cold are described as which type?
• Which EVOC element involves the use of loud warning signals to alert others?
• What is the first action in SIPDE?
• Which principle requires you to search systematically and thoroughly?
• ______ % of officers killed at DVs are responding when the victim is leaving; ______ % are killed on the initial approach; ______ % are killed trying to control the situation.
• Which terrorist tactic is commonly called a 'dirty bomb' and combines a conventional explosive with radioactive material to scatter dangerous and sub-lethal amounts of radioactive material over a general area?
• Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, excited utterances are admissible if:
• On a high-risk stop, how should the contact and cover squads be positioned relative to each other?
• The initial disturbance approach includes three steps. Which is one of those steps?
• Which option is NOT a criterion for imminent threat?
• For most people, the reactionary gap is ____ to _____ of a second.
• Which of the following is a listed action after combat shooting?
• In SIPDE, what does the 'Predict' step involve?
• Which scenario is listed as a permitted use of deadly force?
• This exposure occurs when a sharp object containing or contaminated with a hazardous chemical penetrates the skin.
• In a high-risk vehicle contact, the squads should be placed approximately how many feet away from the subject vehicle?
• Which principle says if you find a weapon, assume there is another?
• SIPDE is an acronym for which sequence of steps?
• Under Wisconsin stalking law, what does 'course of conduct' mean?
• Inside the wheel of power and control are a variety of behaviors known as what?
• What is the most common mode of hazardous material transport?
• Which statement is a tactic abusers use to manipulate law enforcement?
• Which is the final stage of alcohol withdrawal?
• Which of the following statements best reflects a legitimate reason to use force?
• Which two traffic strategies/systems of driving maximize awareness of where your vehicle is in space and relation to other traffic?
• Which term describes the high-probability use of force to stop a threat?
• Which statement correctly defines long-term EDPs?
• Which case established the 'shock the conscience' standard for police liability in pursuits?
• Which of the following is a pre-attack posture?
• What is the purpose of passive countermeasures (decentralizations)?
• Which role is primarily responsible for coordinating other responding officers during a high-risk stop?
• This decentralization is useful when you are in the inside "grappling" position, facing the subject:
• In EVOC, the term 'Presence' refers to what?
• What is the purpose of compliance holds?
• What is the target area for a reaction hand strike?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five factors to consider in mediation?
• Subject ________ is a perception based on training, experience, and the fact situation
• What is the target area for a strong hand strike?
• In the CDTP context, which phrase best describes a required element?
• Which three actions are included in the initial disturbance approach?
• Which terrorist tactic involves an explosion with intense light and heat, a damaging pressure wave, and widespread radioactive material that can contaminate the air, water, and ground surfaces for miles around?
• The elimination of all other viable alternatives before using deadly force is called what?
• Coercive behavior designed to exert power and control through intimidation, threatening, harmful or harassing behavior over a person in an intimate relationship is called what?
• During an arrest in a residence, a protective sweep may be conducted only in which areas?
• Why is EMS recommended to respond to strangulation scenes even if there are no visible injuries?
• What is the first step in conducting a high-risk stop?
• When you are going fast, it takes ______ movement of the steering wheel to turn the vehicle.
• The rule from Tennessee v. Garner states that the harm resulting from failing to apprehend an unarmed suspect does not justify the use of deadly force. This rule pertains to:
• _____ are frequently the best witnesses at DV's.
• Which step describes off-road recovery for a squad vehicle?
• Which terrorist tactic uses poisonous vapors, aerosols, liquids, and solids that have toxic effects on people, animals or plants and can be released by bombs or sprayed from aircraft?
• Which statement accurately describes the predominant aggressor in a domestic incident?
• Traumatic events ______ and sometimes ______ the cognitive memory.
• Under Wisconsin law, arrest in domestic abuse cases is mandatory only if more than one of the listed criteria applies.
• Separation violation is best described as what scenario?
• Which option is NOT listed as an example of a mental disorder?
• What is the purpose of escort holds?
• To stop the threat, which force option is appropriate?
• Which belief is listed as a barrier to leaving: the idea that the victim is the only person who can stop the abuser?
• Factors you should consider in conducting your tactical evaluation fall into four categories. Which is NOT one of those categories?
• Which term best describes using non-deadly options to resolve a threat after initial resistance persists?
• Which of the following is a protective alternative in EVOC?
• Which term describes the tactical option that provides protection from gunfire by placing an obstacle between the officer and the threat?
• In pre-intervention preparation, which action should you take first?
• Which of the following is NOT a control alternative in EVOC?
• Failure to use cover is a common theme among which outcome?
• Which tactic involves a roadblock with an escape route to end a pursuit?
• After a strangulation attack, death can occur up to how many hours later?
• Which statement best describes the impact of injuries on arrest decisions?
• Which option describes a team specialized in crisis intervention?
• To verbally persuade a subject, which term is used?
• Which statement is NOT a restriction on plain view seizure?
• What is the target area for a reaction knee strike?
• The five modes w/in the intervention options are...
• Which of the following is a barrier to leaving an abusive relationship?
• Which professionals are allowed to perform a body cavity search?
• In the DAAT framework, 'incident response' is one of the guiding concepts. What does it emphasize?
• The only situation in which a dual DV arrest is appropriate is.....
• Which of the following is an example of great bodily harm?
• Under the Carroll doctrine, which factor justifies a warrantless search of an automobile?
• Which action is included in the nine steps to a successful death notification?
• Which statement is the first principle when engaging multiple adversaries?
• Who is responsible for pressing charges in domestic violence cases?
• Proper subject debriefing involves five steps. Which of the following is one of the steps?
• Which action is recommended as you reach the apex of a curve when negotiating a corner safely?
• An easy way to remember the sequence in arbitration is the acronym......
• Which Supreme Court case established the standard that use of force must be objectively reasonable?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an officer/subject factor?
• What describes a no-pursuit policy?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a category of intimate relationships?
• What is the ultimate goal of crisis intervention guidance?
• Which of the following is listed as an intimate part?
• Which statement best describes a permissive pursuit policy?
• Serious and persistent mental illnesses are primary disorders of which organ?
• An automobile inventory may be conducted only when the automobile is ______.
• Which exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals contact the skin and pass into the muscle tissue, often without awareness?
• Which action is a safety consideration for the DV victim?
• In negotiating a curve, you should aim for the apex of the curve.
• Which steering wheel hand position is recommended for all law enforcement driving (except backing) to maintain balance and allow rapid rotation of the wheel?
• Which term describes hazardous materials that pose threat to first responders due to extreme temperatures?
• If you have probable cause to believe the vehicle contains evidence of a crime, you may search which area?
• What is the target area for a reaction forearm strike?
• During the six steps, which action uses the P.A. to order occupants out one at a time and secure them?
• With arbitration you have a specific ________ in mind, and if the subject does not voluntarily choose to comply, you will generally have to ______ compliance as necessary
• This exposure is similar to the absorption exposure with one key difference; this exposure will cause damage to the skin as it makes its way into your body.
• The target area for a strong angle kick is located where?
• What type of brain is believed to always capture the facts?
• A situation that significantly reduces a person's ability to cope is called what?
• In the forensic trauma interview, which question is used to elicit sensory memory?
• If it takes 30 mph to stop, it will take how many times as much distance to stop at 60 mph?
• Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance?
• Another purpose of using lights during a high-risk stop is to make it harder for subjects to see officers.
• Which of the following is a verbal indicator for people in crisis?
• Which disposition is most appropriate when assisting someone with a mental disorder?
• Which of the following is NOT a guideline for searching a vehicle?
• Which practice is explicitly listed as a permissible search that does not involve the 4th Amendment?